Deeni Quiz

Answer: It is Haraam.
It is not permissible to buy shares in riba-based banks. Anyone who has done such a thing must repent to Allah, may He be exalted, and take his capital, then get rid of the remaining money by spending it in the public interests of the Muslims or on charitable causes.

Because these shares are haraam, the basic principle is that it is not permissible for you to sell them to anyone. Rather the way to get rid of them is to return them to the bank. If that is not possible, it is permissible for you to sell them and take the capital that was invested in them, then to get rid of the rest in the ways referred to above.

Her father gave her shares in a riba-based bank; what should she do with them? - Islam Question & Answer My father gave me 50 shares in the Bank of Riyadh. I know that the Bank of Riyadh is one of the riba-based banks. My father was one of the shareholders, and he put shares in my name since I was a child. Now I have grown up, and he has given them to me. What should I do with these shares? Is it permi...

According to Ibn al Qaiyim (Zadul Ma’aad 2/54,55) the messenger of Allah ﷺ stayed in Quba’ for four days on his way to madinah. Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday, During this time the prophet ﷺ built the masjid with abu bakr رَضِيَ اللَّهُ عَنْهُ and prayed in it.

Answer: yes there is a difference.

A number of scholars are of the view that pardon goes further than forgiveness, because ‘afw (pardon) means erasing and maghfirah (forgiveness) means concealing.

Abu Haamid al-Ghazaali (may Allah have mercy on him) said:

Al-‘Afuww (the Pardoner) is the One Who erases bad deeds and overlooks sins. This divine name is similar in meaning to al-Ghafoor (the Forgiving), but the meaning goes further, for forgiveness reflects the meaning of concealing, whereas pardon reflects the meaning of erasing, and erasing goes further than concealing. End quote from al-Maqsad al-Asna (p. 140).

The difference between pardon and forgiveness:

Forgiveness (maghfirah) implies the waiving of punishment, and the waiving of punishment implies that the reward is inevitable, so no one deserves forgiveness except the believer who is deserving of reward. Hence this word is only used in relation to Allah, so it is said: May Allah forgive you (Ghafar Allahu laka), and it is not said: May Zayd forgive you, except very rarely…

Pardon (‘afw) implies waiving of blame and condemnation, but it does not imply that reward is inevitable. Hence this word may be used in relation to people, so it may be said: Zayd pardoned (‘afa) ‘Amr; but if he pardons him, he does not have to reward him.

However, because these words are very close in meaning, they overlap, and when speaking of the attributes of Allah, may He be exalted, they may be used to refer to the same thing. So it may be said that Allah pardoned him (‘Afa Allahu ‘anhu) and He forgave him (Ghara lahu), meaning the same thing.

What comes after the two words supports what we say. If you say, He pardoned him, this implies removal of something from him; if you say, He forgave him, that implies affirming something for him. End quote.

Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him) said:

Pardon implies waiving His rights in their case and forgiving them. Forgiveness implies protecting them from the evil of their sin, turning to them [in mercy] and being pleased with them, in contrast to mere pardon, for the Pardoner may pardon, but He may not turn [in mercy] to the one whom He pardons and He may not be pleased with him.

Pardon is mere overlooking, whereas forgiveness is kindness, grace and generosity. End quote from Majmoo‘ al-Fataawa (14/140).

Thus it becomes clear that forgiveness goes further than pardon, according to the correct view, because of what it implies of kindness and generosity.

The difference between forgiveness (maghfirah) and pardon (‘afw) - Islam Question & Answer I heard that the difference between forgiveness and pardon is that forgiveness is when Allah forgives you for sin, but it remains in your record; as for pardon, it is forgiveness for sin, which is then erased from your record as if it never happened. I do not understand how it can remain in your rec...

Answer:Yes.

It is permissible to work as an intermediary between service providers and customers. This comes under the heading of brokerage. That is on condition that the service agreed upon is permissible.

It says in Fataawa al-Lajnah ad-Daa’imah (13/129): If there is an agreement between the broker, the seller and the buyer that the broker will take from the buyer, from the seller, or from both of them, a certain amount, that is permissible, and the amount is not limited to a certain percentage; rather whatever is agreed upon and accepted by the one who will pay the commission is permissible.

But it should be within the limits that are customary among the people and what will be fair to the broker, in return for his efforts in mediating and striving to complete the transaction between the seller and the buyer, and it should not be detrimental to the interests of the seller or the buyer by increasing it beyond what is reasonable. End quote.

If the service is haraam, such as transporting alcohol, or building maintenance of a riba-based bank, then it is not permissible to act as an intermediary in such cases, because of what that involves of helping in sin. Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning): “And cooperate in righteousness and piety, but do not cooperate in sin and transgression. And fear Allah; indeed, Allah is severe in penalty” [al-Maa’idah 5:2].

And Allah knows best.

What is the ruling on working on a platform to mediate between customers and service providers? - Islam Question & Answer It is permissible to work as an intermediary between service providers and customers. This comes under the heading of brokerage. That is on condition that the service agreed upon is permissible. For more details, please see the long answer.

Answer:Loss or Deprivation

The Arabic word taghaabun (great loss or deprivation) comes from the word ghabn, which means loss when buying or selling, or selling someone short.

Imam al-Fayyoomi (may Allah have mercy on him) said: This word is used with regard to buying or selling, and refers to giving someone less than the correct price, and the like. End quote from al-Misbaah al-Muneer (442).

See also: Mukhtaar as-Sihaah, entry on ghayn baa’ noon (p. 224); al-Qaamoos al-Muheet, Fasl al-Ghayn (1/1219).

Ash-Shinqeeti said: Ghabn is the feeling of imperfection; a similar word is khabn. These words share two out of three letters, according to the rules of language, as they are close in meaning, and the letters that differ are very close, namely ghayn and khaa’, as the ghayn comes from further back in the throat, whilst the khaa’ comes from a place closer to the front. Therefore ghabn refers to that which is hidden, and khabn refers to that which is more apparent. End quote from Adwaa’ al-Bayaan (8/201).

Therefore, the Day of Resurrection is called Yawm at-Taghaabun (the day of great loss or deprivation), because of what will become apparent on that day of the loss of those who followed disbelief and misguidance, for they have sold their hereafter for the sake of worldly gain. So their loss will become apparent and whatever profit they made will perish.

The meaning of taghaabun - Islam Question & Answer The Arabic word taghaabun (great loss or deprivation) comes from the word ghabn, which means loss when buying or selling, or selling someone short.

Answer:Fard Kiyafayah.

The funeral prayer is fard kifaayah; if some people do it then the rest are absolved of responsibility, but if all of them fail to do it then all are guilty of sin.

The funeral prayer is fard kifaayah - Islam Question & Answer The  funeral prayer is fard kifaayah; if some people do it then the rest are absolved of responsibility, but if all of them fail to do it then all are guilty of sin.  It is not something that is only for men; rather it is prescribed for both men and women alike to offer the funeral prayer, even th...

Answer: There is no agreement between the scholars as to which date he was born.

1. The biographers and historians differed concerning the day and month of the birth of the Prophet.
2. The strongest opinion concerning the birth of the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) is that he was born between the eighth and the twelfth of Rabee‘ al-Awwal in the Year of the Elephant.
3. The most well-known view is that the death of the Prophet occurred on 12th Rabee‘ al-Awwal 11 AH.

What Is the Date of Prophet Muhammad’s Birth and Death? - Islam Question & Answer 1. The biographers and historians differed concerning the day and month of the birth of the Prophet. 2. The strongest opinion concerning the birth of the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) is that he was born between the eighth and the twelfth of Rabee‘ al-Awwal in the Year of the ...

Answer:Permissible if it is for a valid reason.

The Standing Committee said concerning this issue:

The Sunnah at the time of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and the time of the Sahaabah was to bury the deceased in the graveyard of the land or city in which he died, and to bury the martyrs where they died. It is not proven in any hadeeth or report that any of the Sahaabah was moved to a place other than the graveyard of the land or city in which he died, or to another place nearby.

Because of that, the majority of fuqaha’ said: it is not permissible to move the deceased before burial to a land other than the one in which he died, unless that is for a valid reason such as the fear that his grave may be violated if he is buried where he died, or that it may be mistreated, in which case he must be moved to a place where his grave will be safe.

For example, moving him to his homeland so that his family will feel better and will be able to visit his grave is permissible.

But in such cases that is subject to the condition that there is no fear that the co**se may start to decay because of the delay in burial, and that his sanctity will not be violated. If there is no need to move him and these conditions are not met, then it is not permissible to move him.

The Committee believes that every deceased person should be buried in the graveyard of the city in which he dies, and that they should not be moved to another city unless that is for a valid reason, in accordance with the Sunnah and the practice of the salaf or early generations of this ummah, so as to avoid transgressing the rules of sharee’ah, to bury the deceased quickly as encouraged in sharee’ah, to protect the deceased from the procedures that may be done to his body to prevent decay, and to avoid the extravagance of spending large amounts of money unnecessarily and for which there is no legitimate shar’i need, as well as protecting the rights of the heirs and saving this money so that it may be spent in the proper ways.

This is the fatwa signed by the Committee. May Allaah send blessings upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon his family and companions.

Fataawa Islamiyyah, 2/31, 32

Taking the deceased back to his homeland - Islam Question & Answer With regard to the first issue, it is obligatory to carry out the wishes of the deceased, whether he left a will describing something obligatory or something mustahabb. 

Answer: Yes.

It is mustahabb to sacrifice the ‘aqeeqah on behalf of the new born on the seventh day, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “Every child is in pledge for his ‘aqeeqah, which should be sacrificed on his behalf on the seventh day, and his head should be shaved and he should be given his name.”

Narrated by Abu Dawood, 2838
classed as saheeh by Shaykh al-Albaani.

Answer:Yes. It is obligatory.

According to the majority of fuqaha’ from the four madhhabs, the husband is not obliged to pay for medical treatment for his wife. Some of them gave the reason for that as being that it is not one of the essential needs, rather it is something extraneous.

Shaykh Hamad ibn ‘Abd-Allaah al-Hamad said in Sharh Zaad al-Mustaqni’: The second view concerning this issue is one of the views in our madhhab, that this (paying medical expenses) is required of the husband, and this is more correct, because that is part of kindness and good treatment, and Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“and live with them honourably”

[al-Nisa’ 4:19].

It is not part of kind or honourable treatment to let the wife get sick and not bring her a doctor or pay his fee. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“And they (women) have rights (over their husbands as regards living expenses) similar (to those of their husbands) over them (as regards obedience and respect) to what is reasonable”

[al-Baqarah 2:228].

So the correct view is that this is obligatory. End quote.

Is it obligatory for the husband to provide medical treatment for his wife? - Islam Question & Answer According to the majority of fuqaha’ from the four madhhabs, the husband is not obliged to pay for medical treatment for his wife. Some of them gave the reason for that as being that it is not one of the essential needs, rather it is something extraneous. 

Answer:No.

It says in the statement:

The session of the Islamic Fiqh Council held during its fifth conference in Kuwait, 1-6 Jumaada al-Aakhir 1409 AH/10-15 December 1988 AH.

After studying the research papers presented by council members and experts on the topic of family planning, and listening to the discussion that took place on the topic,

And based on the fact that one of the aims of marriage according to Islamic teaching is to produce children and preserve the human race, and that it is not permissible to undermine this aim, because undermining it is contrary to the texts of Islam and their teachings which call for having a lot of offspring, protecting them and caring for them because protecting offspring is one of the five holistic principles that are promoted by Islamic teaching,

The council determined the following:

Firstly: it is not permissible to promulgate laws restricting the freedom of couples to have children.

Secondly: it is prohibited to completely eradicate the ability to have children in the case of either the man or the woman, which is known as sterilisation, so long as there is no necessary reason, according to Islamic standards, for doing so.

Thirdly: it is permissible to use temporary methods of birth control for the purpose of spacing pregnancies, or preventing pregnancy for a specific length of time, if there is a valid reason, according to Islamic teachings, for doing so, according to what a couple decide on the basis of mutual consultation and consent, on condition that this does not lead to any harm and that the method used is Islamically permissible and does not cause harm to any existing pregnancy. End quote.

And Allah knows best.

Is Contraception Haram? - Islam Question & Answer Taking contraceptive measures is permissible in principle because the Companions (may Allah be pleased with them) used the method of ‘azl (coitus interruptus) during the time of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) and he did not forbid them to do that.

Answer:Try to find a time even if it is hard, where he/she is sure that no flatus has come out and pray in that time.

Many people misunderstand the nature of incontinence, and they think that if any najaasah is emitted or any wind is passed without them realizing, this means that they are excused because of incontinence. This is incorrect

The correct view is that if the worshipper thinks that there is a certain window of time, even if it is short, in which he thinks that he will be unlikely to emit urine or wind without being able to control it, then he must delay the prayer until that time, do wudoo’ for it then offer the prayer in the proper manner. But for the one who thinks that some urine comes out of him two or three times a day without him being able to control it, or that wind comes out of him once or twice a day without him being able to control it, and that because of this he is excused and comes under the rulings on incontinence, this is a mistaken notion. The one who is excused is the one whose passing of wind or urine is ongoing, and he can hardly find sufficient time to pray without his wudoo’ being invalidated and he has no control over that, or there is no window of time in which he hopes that it will stop so that he can pray.

She is suffering from flatus incontinence and stopped praying for a while because of that; she is asking for a remedy - Islam Question & Answer I am suffering from flatus incontinence (continually passing wind), to the extent that there was a time when I did not pray because of that. How can I pray with this problem?

Answer: Not Permissible.

Shaykh Sulaymaan ibn ‘Abd al-Wahhaab said:

“Know that the scholars among the Sahaabah and Taabi’een and those who came after them differed as to whether it is permissible to hang up amulets which only contain words from the Qur’aan or names and attributes of Allaah.

One group said that this is permissible. This was the view of ‘Abd-Allaah ibn ‘Amr ibn al-‘Aas and others. This is the apparent meaning of the report narrated from ‘Aa’ishah and it was the view of Abu Ja’far al-Baaqir and Ahmad, according to one report. They interpreted the hadeeth as referring to amulets which involve shirk; with regard to those which contain words from the Qur’aan or the names and attributes of Allaah, then they are like ruqyah which uses the same words.

I say, this appears to be the view of Ibn al-Qayyim.

Another group said that this is not permissible. This was the view of Ibn Mas’ood and Ibn ‘Abbaas, and is the apparent meaning of the view of Hudhayfah, ‘Uqbah ibn ‘Aamir and Ibn ‘Akeem (may Allaah be pleased with him). This was also the view of a group of the Taabi’een, including the companions of Ibn Mas’ood and Ahmad, according to one report which was chosen by most of his companions. It was also the view of the later scholars, who quoted this and similar ahaadeeth as evidence. The apparent meaning is that it is general in application and does not differentiate between amulets which contain Qur’aan and amulets which contain other things, unlike ruqyah where there is a differentiation. This is supported by the fact that the Sahaabah who narrated the hadeeth understood it to be general in meaning, as was quoted above from Ibn Mas’ood.

Abu Dawood narrated that ‘Eesa ibn Hamzah said: “I entered upon ‘Abd-Allaah ibn ‘Akeem and his face was red due to high fever. I said, ‘Why don’t you hang up an amulet?’ He said, ‘We seek refuge with Allaah from that. The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever hangs up anything will be entrusted to its care…”’”

This scholarly difference was concerning hanging up amulets which contain Qur’aan or names and attributes of Allaah, so what do you think about the things which were innovated later on, doing spells (ruqyah) using the names of shayaateen (devils) and others and hanging them up, and even being attached to those shayaateen, seeking refuge in them, slaughtering animals for them, asking them to ward off harm and bring benefits – actions which are pure shirk? This is prevalent among many of the people, except for those whom Allaah keeps safe and sound. Think about what the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said and what was the practice of the Sahaabah and Taabi’een, and what the scholars after them mentioned on this topic and others. Then look at what happened in the later generations. It will become clear to you what the religion of the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) is, and how it has now become alienated in all ways. And Allaah is the One Whose help we seek.

(Tayseer al-‘Azeez al-Hameed, p. 136-138)

Ruling on Wearing Amulets for Protection - Islam Question & Answer The scholars agreed that it is haram to wear amulets for protection if they contain anything other than Quran, but they differed concerning those which do contain Quran. Some of them said that wearing these is permitted, and others said that it is not permitted.

Answer:No.

This method of fertilization, which involves placing the egg with the husband’s s***m in the womb of the other wife, is a method that is not acceptable according to sharee’ah, and a large number of scholars are of the view that it is haraam. Statements were issued concerning it by the Islamic Fiqh Council of the Organization of the Islamic Conference (OIC) and by the Islamic Fiqh Council of the Muslim World League. Those who initially said that this method was permissible later retracted their view.

Is it permissible to put the s***m of the husband and the egg from the wife in the womb of the second wife? - Islam Question & Answer This method of fertilization, which involves placing the egg with the husband’s s***m in the womb of the other wife, is a method that is not acceptable according to sharee’ah, and a large number of scholars are of the view that it is haraam. Statements were issued concerning it by the Islamic Fi...

Answer:Kaafir. (Disbeliever)

The scholars have differed concerning the Muslim who deliberately neglects salaah without denying that it is obligatory. Some of them say that he is definitely a kaafir who has gone beyond the pale of Islam. He is considered to be a murtadd (apostate) who is to be given three days to repent – if he does not, he is to be executed for his apostasy. The funeral prayer will not be recited over him, and he will not be buried in the Muslim graveyard. The greeting of salaam is not to be given to him, in life or in death, and his greeting is not to be returned; prayers for forgiveness and mercy for him cannot be offered; he cannot inherit, neither can his wealth be inherited, instead it is to be given to the Muslim treasury (bayt al-maal). This ruling applies whether the number of people who are neglecting their prayers are many or a few.

This opinion is the soundest and most correct, because of the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him): “The difference between us and them is salaah. Whoever neglects it is a kaafir.”

(Reported by Imaam Ahmad and the authors of Sunan with a saheeh isnaad); and: “(Nothing stands) between a man and kufr and shirk, except prayer: (whoever neglects it becomes a kaafir and a mushrik).” (Reported by Imaam Muslim in his Saheeh, with other similar ahaadeeth).

The majority of scholars said that if a person denies that prayer is obligatory, he is a kaafir and an apostate from the religion of Islam. The ruling concerning such a person is as described above. If he does not deny that it is obligatory, but he neglects it because of laziness, for example, then he is guilty of a major sin (kabeerah), but he is not considered to be beyond the pale of Islam. He should be given three days in which to repent. If he does, then al-hamdu lillah (praise be to Allaah); if he does not, then he should be executed, but this is a punishment, not because he became a kaafir. In this case, he should be washed (ghusl, after death) and wrapped in a shroud (kafn). The funeral prayer should be offered for him, prayers can be offered for forgiveness and mercy for him, and he should be buried in the Muslim graveyard. He can inherit and be inherited from. In general, all the rules concerning Muslims who are sinners apply to him, in life and in death.

Ruling on one who neglects prayer - Islam Question & Answer The saheeh ahaadeeth state clearly that the one who neglects prayer is a kaafir. If we take the hadeeth at face value, it appears that we are obliged to deprive the person who neglects prayer deliberately of all his rights of inheritance, a separate cemetery should be allocated for such people, and....