Neurosurgery MCQs by Dr. Nidal Abuhadrous

2. Regarding Pilocytic astrocytoma, all of the next are true, except:
A. 10-year survival: > 95%
B. Cerebellar PCAs are classically cystic with mural nodule
C. Rosenthal fibers are seen on pathology slides
D. There is risk of overgrading
E. Recurrence should be radiated

1. Regarding Pilocytic astrocytoma, all of the next are true, except:
A. It is a WHO grade I tumor
B. It is the most common astrocytic tumor in children
C. Mitosis & necrosis may be seen
D. It can be easily differentiated form infiltrating astrocytoma based on pathology
E. The mural nodule should always be removed in cerebellar PCAs (cystic with mural nodule)

The "aphasia square"

One-and-a-half syndrome is:
A) Bilateral MLF lesion & a unilateral 3d n lesion
B) Bilateral 3d n lesion & a unilateral MLF lesion
C) Bilateral MLF lesion & a unilateral 6th n lesion
D) Bilateral 6th n lesion & a unilateral MLF lesion
E) Unilateral 6th n lesion & contralateral 3d n lesion

Correct diagnosis is:
A) Relative afferent (Marcus Gunn) pupil, Lt eye
B) Horner syndrome, Lt eye
C) Internuclear ophthalmoplegia, Rt eye (Rt MLF lesion)
D) Parinaud syndrome
E) Destructive lesion of Rt frontal eye field

Lateral C4-C5 disc herniation will compress the exiting C5 nerve root (the exiting root is at the level of the disc in C-spine).
So as a general rule for both lumbar & cervical:
L4-L5 disc compress L5 root
C4-C5 disc compress C5 root

Large Central disc herniation might cause CES as shown at L3-L4 level.
Lateral disc at L5-S1 compress the traversing ipsilateral S1 root.
Lateral disc at L4-L5 compress the traversing iosilateral root L5 & maybe also S1, but at this L4-L5 level, far lateral (foraminal) or migrated up disc will compress the exiting L4 root only (monoradiculopathy).

This is Neurosurgery. So delicate work.

Combined interhemispheric and pterional approach for ACOM and left MCA aneurysms Satoshi Kiyofuji, M.D., Tomohiro Inoue, M.D., Akira Tamura, M.D., Ph.D., and Isamu Saito, M.D., Ph. D. Department of Neurosurgery, Fuji Brain Institute and H...

Ok
What are these images?
Which for abscess?
Which for Glioblastoma?
Why?

Regarding Wallenberg’s syndrome, Which is true?

A) Seen in patients with brainstem hemorrhage
B) Classically attributed to AICA occlusion
C) Onset is usually subacute
D) It is also called medial medullary syndrome
E) Absence of pyramidal tract findings

Which images are mostly for Glioblastoma & which are mostly for cerebral abscess & why?

Fusion for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis — Safeguard or Superfluous Surgical Implant? — NEJM Editorial from The New England Journal of Medicine — Fusion for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis — Safeguard or Superfluous Surgical Implant?